EPA 608 Core practice test

1. Which element in CFC and HCFC refrigerants is responsible for destroying ozone in the stratosphere?

1. A Fluorine
2. B Carbon
3. C Chlorine
4. D Hydrogen

2. R-12 belongs to which family of refrigerants?

1. A CFC
2. B HFC
3. C HCFC
4. D HFO

3. A technician is servicing an older split system charged with R-22. What type of refrigerant is R-22?

1. A Hydrocarbon
2. B CFC
3. C HFC
4. D HCFC

4. A customer asks why R-134a is said to have an ozone depletion potential of zero. What is the reason?

1. A It breaks down completely in the lower atmosphere
2. B It contains no chlorine to attack ozone
3. C It is heavier than air and stays near the ground
4. D It is used only in small amounts

5. Which list puts the refrigerant families in order from highest to lowest ozone depletion potential?

1. A HCFC, CFC, HFC
2. B HFC, HCFC, CFC
3. C CFC, HCFC, HFC
4. D CFC, HFC, HCFC

6. Ozone depletion potential (ODP) compares a substance with a reference refrigerant whose ODP is set at 1.0. Which refrigerant is that reference?

1. A R-22
2. B R-11
3. C R-134a
4. D R-410A

7. What does the ozone layer in the stratosphere do that protects people at ground level?

1. A It filters smog and dust out of the air
2. B It traps heat near the surface to keep the earth warm at night
3. C It produces the oxygen that people breathe
4. D It absorbs much of the sun's ultraviolet radiation

8. Which health effect is linked to thinning of the stratospheric ozone layer?

1. A More cases of skin cancer and cataracts
2. B Higher rates of food poisoning
3. C More frequent heat stroke in summer
4. D Increased hearing loss in adults

9. Besides harm to human health, which environmental effect is expected from stratospheric ozone depletion?

1. A Lower crop yields and harm to ocean plankton
2. B Faster growth of forests and grasslands
3. C Cooler summers across most of the world
4. D Less acid rain over industrial areas

10. Why are CFC molecules released at ground level able to reach the stratosphere?

1. A They are lighter than air and rise to the stratosphere within hours
2. B Rain carries them upward during storms
3. C Sunlight in the lower atmosphere turns them into ozone
4. D They are very stable and do not break down low in the air

11. What finally breaks a CFC molecule apart once it reaches the stratosphere?

1. A Contact with water vapor in clouds
2. B Strong ultraviolet light from the sun
3. C Reaction with nitrogen in the air
4. D The cold temperatures at high altitude

12. Why can a single chlorine atom released from a CFC destroy many ozone molecules rather than just one?

1. A It splits into several smaller atoms after each reaction
2. B It combines with fluorine to form new chlorine
3. C It is freed again after each reaction and keeps going
4. D It turns ozone into more CFC molecules

13. Which observation is part of the evidence that CFCs and HCFCs are thinning the ozone layer?

1. A Chlorine levels in the stratosphere matching volcanic activity
2. B Steady increases in ozone over the poles since the 1950s
3. C Ozone levels rising wherever CFC sales went up
4. D Ozone loss over Antarctica alongside high chlorine levels

14. R-410A does not deplete ozone. Why is releasing it to the atmosphere still an environmental concern?

1. A It has a high global warming potential
2. B It turns into smog at ground level
3. C It breaks down into chlorine in sunlight
4. D It reacts with ozone in the lower atmosphere

15. What is the Montreal Protocol?

1. A A U.S. law that sets fines for venting refrigerant
2. B An international treaty phasing out ozone-depleting substances
3. C An industry standard for the purity of reclaimed refrigerant
4. D A federal program that tests and certifies recovery machines

16. In the United States, production of CFC refrigerants such as R-12 for general use ended on which date?

1. A January 1, 1992
2. B January 1, 1996
3. C January 1, 2010
4. D January 1, 2020

17. Production and import of new R-22 in the United States ended on January 1, 2020. How can existing R-22 systems still be serviced?

1. A Only by replacing the entire system with a new HFC system
2. B With any HFC added on top of the R-22 charge
3. C With recovered, recycled or reclaimed R-22
4. D Only with R-22 imported under a special permit

18. Under the HCFC phaseout, what changed for R-22 starting January 1, 2010?

1. A It could not be produced or imported for new equipment
2. B It could no longer be used to service any existing systems
3. C It was reclassified as a substitute refrigerant
4. D It could only be sold to Type III technicians

19. While replacing a compressor, a technician knowingly opens the valves and lets an R-22 charge blow to the air instead of recovering it. Under the Clean Air Act rules, this is:

1. A Allowed if the charge is under 50 pounds
2. B A violation only if a customer reports it
3. C Allowed if the refrigerant is contaminated
4. D A violation of the venting prohibition

20. A crew is tearing out an old R-22 rooftop unit for scrap. What does the venting prohibition require of them?

1. A Nothing, because disposal is not servicing
2. B Release the refrigerant slowly outdoors
3. C Recover the refrigerant instead of releasing it
4. D Ask the owner to sign a venting waiver

21. Does the venting prohibition apply to HFC substitute refrigerants such as R-410A and R-134a?

1. A No, it covers only CFCs and HCFCs
2. B Only for equipment built after 2018
3. C Only when the system holds more than 50 pounds
4. D Yes, non-exempt substitutes are covered too

22. Which of these may be released without violating the venting prohibition?

1. A R-410A drained from a system before a coil change
2. B R-134a from a disposable cylinder heel
3. C Pure nitrogen used to pressure-test a line set
4. D R-22 removed during an oil change

23. How are civil penalties counted for violations of the Clean Air Act refrigerant rules?

1. A Per violation, for each day the violation continues
2. B One flat fine per company per year
3. C Per technician, only after a second offense
4. D Per pound vented, with no daily count

24. Which release is treated as de minimis, and so does not violate the venting prohibition?

1. A Venting a nearly empty system that holds less than one pound
2. B A small loss while connecting hoses during proper recovery
3. C Releasing refrigerant that is too dirty to recycle
4. D Purging a recovery cylinder that was overfilled

25. A technician recovers R-22 into a cylinder and later opens the cylinder valve to empty it outdoors. Is this a violation?

1. A No, the refrigerant was already out of the appliance
2. B Yes, releasing refrigerant after recovery is venting
3. C No, as long as it happens away from buildings
4. D Yes, but only if the cylinder held over 15 pounds

26. Under 40 CFR 82.152, a low-pressure appliance uses a refrigerant with a liquid-phase saturation pressure below what level at 104 °F?

1. A 45 psia
2. B 170 psia
3. C 355 psia
4. D 15 psig

27. Under the Section 608 definitions, an appliance charged with R-410A is classified as:

1. A Low-pressure
2. B Medium-pressure
3. C High-pressure
4. D Very high-pressure

28. Under 40 CFR 82.152, how is an appliance using R-134a classified?

1. A Low-pressure
2. B Medium-pressure
3. C High-pressure
4. D Very high-pressure

29. Which refrigerant is given in 40 CFR 82.152 as an example for a very high-pressure appliance?

1. A R-500
2. B R-123
3. C R-407C
4. D R-23

30. What is self-contained recovery equipment?

1. A Equipment that relies on the appliance's own compressor to move refrigerant
2. B A recovery unit that is permanently mounted on the appliance
3. C A cylinder that comes pre-evacuated from the factory
4. D Equipment that removes refrigerant without help from the appliance

31. Recovery equipment that needs the appliance's own compressor or internal pressure to remove refrigerant is called:

1. A System-dependent
2. B Self-contained
3. C Active recovery
4. D Recycling equipment

32. A technician is paid to repair car air conditioners. Which certification does that work require?

1. A Section 608 Type I certification
2. B Section 608 Type II certification
3. C Section 609 MVAC certification
4. D Section 608 Universal certification

33. A homeowner's split system uses R-410A, an HFC. Is servicing it covered by the Section 608 rules?

1. A No, the rules cover only CFC and HCFC refrigerant systems
2. B Only if the system was installed before 2010
3. C Only if the system holds more than 50 pounds
4. D Yes, non-exempt substitutes such as HFCs are covered

34. Recovery and recycling machines made on or after November 15, 1993, must be certified by whom?

1. A An EPA-approved equipment testing organization
2. B The technician's employer
3. C The refrigerant manufacturer
4. D The state licensing board

35. Certified recovery equipment made under 40 CFR 82.158 carries a permanent label. What must that label state?

1. A The name and certificate number of the technician who owns it
2. B Certification by a named approved testing organization
3. C The refrigerants the owner has recovered with it
4. D The date the machine was last serviced

36. Recovered refrigerant sold to a new owner must first be reclaimed to which standard?

1. A ASHRAE Standard 15
2. B UL 1963
3. C AHRI Standard 700-2016
4. D ASHRAE Standard 34

37. Who may buy R-410A in a 25-pound cylinder for servicing a residential split system?

1. A Anyone over 18 with a valid ID
2. B A Section 609 certified technician
3. C A Section 608 certified technician or an employer of one
4. D A homeowner who signs a statement saying how it will be used

38. A technician holds only Section 609 (MVAC) certification. Can that technician buy R-410A intended for a rooftop unit?

1. A Yes, any certified technician may buy any refrigerant
2. B Yes, if the container holds less than 30 pounds
3. C No, R-410A can be bought only by reclaimers
4. D No, 609 certification covers only MVAC refrigerant

39. Which refrigerant sale is allowed to an uncertified buyer under the sales restriction?

1. A A 30-pound cylinder of R-22 for a homeowner's own heat pump
2. B A small MVAC can (2 lb or less) with a self-sealing valve
3. C A 25-pound cylinder of R-410A bought for a home window unit
4. D Recovered R-134a sold directly to a neighbor

40. A contractor recovers 20 pounds of R-22 from a customer's system. Before selling it to a different owner, what must happen to it?

1. A It must be reclaimed by an EPA-certified reclaimer
2. B It must be filtered through a recycling machine
3. C It must be stored for at least 30 days
4. D It must be mixed with fresh R-22 first

41. Refrigerant recovered from a customer's walk-in cooler is to be charged into another cooler owned by the same customer. What does the rule require first?

1. A It must be tested by a laboratory for acid
2. B It must be reclaimed to AHRI 700-2016
3. C Nothing more; it may go into the same owner's equipment
4. D It must be approved in writing by the EPA regional office

42. Which task makes a person a "technician" who needs Section 608 certification?

1. A Attaching gauge hoses to an appliance to read pressures
2. B Painting the outside of a condensing unit
3. C Replacing a thermostat on the wall
4. D Changing the air filter on a furnace

43. How long must a certified technician keep a copy of the Section 608 certificate?

1. A One year after passing the test
2. B At work until 3 years after leaving the trade
3. C Until the card expires
4. D Only while carrying it on each and every service call

44. How often must a Section 608 certification be renewed?

1. A Every two years with a retest
2. B Every five years with a retest
3. C Every ten years with a retest
4. D It does not expire

45. An uncertified helper may recover refrigerant on a job only if what is true?

1. A The helper is a registered, closely supervised apprentice
2. B The helper has already passed the Core section of the exam
3. C The helper works only on systems holding under 50 pounds
4. D The customer has agreed to it in writing beforehand

46. Each Section 608 certification test includes how many Core questions, and what is the passing score for a closed-book section?

1. A 25 questions; 70 percent
2. B 50 questions; 70 percent
3. C 25 questions; 84 percent
4. D 20 questions; 75 percent

47. A technician passed the Core section as an open-book exam. Can that score be used toward Universal certification?

1. A Yes, any passing Core score counts
2. B Yes, if Types I, II and III are passed within a year
3. C No, Universal requires closed-book, proctored testing
4. D No, Universal requires retaking Type I by mail

48. Who issues the Section 608 technician certification card?

1. A The EPA regional office
2. B The approved organization that gave the test
3. C The technician's employer
4. D The state contractor licensing board

49. Which person is not required to hold Section 608 certification?

1. A Someone connecting gauges to a chiller
2. B Someone recovering R-22 from a 10-ton rooftop unit for a repair
3. C Someone adding refrigerant to a supermarket rack
4. D Someone recovering from a household refrigerator for disposal

50. A technician recovers refrigerant to dispose of a 20-pound residential split system. Which record does 40 CFR 82.156(a)(3) require, and for how long?

1. A No records are required for this size of system
2. B A leak rate calculation, kept for one year
3. C The customer's signature on the work order, kept for five years
4. D Location, date and refrigerant type, kept three years

51. Under 40 CFR 82.161(a), which certification is needed to service a low-pressure centrifugal chiller?

1. A Type I
2. B Type II
3. C Type III
4. D Section 609

52. What must a scrap recycler do before accepting a household freezer for final disposal?

1. A Nothing; recyclers are not covered by Section 608
2. B Recover the remaining refrigerant or get a signed statement
3. C Accept only freezers that carry a "refrigerant removed" sticker
4. D Report each freezer to the EPA regional office

53. A customer wants to switch an R-22 system to a replacement refrigerant by just adding it to the existing system. Why is this a problem?

1. A Replacement refrigerants are illegal to sell
2. B Only the manufacturer may change the refrigerant
3. C Replacement refrigerants always require a new compressor and coil
4. D No true drop-in exists; a retrofit usually needs other changes

54. Which lubricant is typically used with the HFC refrigerant R-134a in stationary equipment?

1. A Mineral oil
2. B Polyolester (ester) oil
3. C Alkylbenzene
4. D Ordinary motor oil

55. Alkylbenzene lubricant is most closely associated with which refrigerant family?

1. A HCFCs such as R-22
2. B HFCs such as R-410A
3. C Hydrocarbons such as R-290
4. D HFOs such as R-1234yf

56. An R-12 system is being retrofitted to R-134a. Why must the lubricant usually be changed?

1. A Mineral oil would raise the ozone depletion potential of R-134a
2. B R-134a reacts with mineral oil to form chlorine
3. C R-134a does not mix well with the mineral oil used with R-12
4. D R-134a requires no lubricant at all

57. Why should a container of polyolester (POE) oil be kept tightly sealed until it is used?

1. A The oil evaporates quickly at room temperature
2. B The oil turns into a flammable gas when opened
3. C The oil readily absorbs moisture from the air
4. D The oil loses its color and can no longer be identified

58. What is fractionation in a refrigerant blend?

1. A The oil separating from the refrigerant in the crankcase
2. B The blend's components leaking out at different rates
3. C The refrigerant freezing at the metering device
4. D The blend breaking down into chlorine in sunlight

59. How should a zeotropic blend such as R-407C be charged into a system to keep its composition correct?

1. A As liquid from the cylinder
2. B As vapor from the top of the cylinder
3. C As vapor, with the cylinder warmed first
4. D Alternating vapor and liquid in small amounts

60. Which statement about refrigerant blends is correct?

1. A Blends may always be topped off after a leak without concern
2. B Zeotropic blends never change composition when they leak
3. C All blends have a single boiling point at a given pressure
4. D Azeotropes behave much like a single refrigerant

61. In a vapor-compression system, where does the refrigerant absorb heat and produce cooling?

1. A In the condenser
2. B In the compressor
3. C In the evaporator
4. D In the receiver

62. What leaves the compressor in a working refrigeration system?

1. A High-pressure, high-temperature vapor
2. B Low-pressure, low-temperature vapor
3. C High-pressure liquid
4. D Low-pressure liquid

63. What happens to the refrigerant in the condenser?

1. A It boils and absorbs heat from the room air
2. B It gives up heat and condenses to a liquid
3. C Its pressure drops sharply
4. D It is filtered of moisture and acid

64. What does the metering device (such as an expansion valve or capillary tube) do to the refrigerant?

1. A Raises its pressure so it can condense
2. B Turns vapor into liquid
3. C Separates oil from the refrigerant
4. D Lowers its pressure so it can boil in the evaporator

65. In a normally running system, what is in the suction line between the evaporator and the compressor?

1. A Low-pressure vapor
2. B High-pressure vapor
3. C High-pressure liquid
4. D Low-pressure liquid only

66. On a standard manifold gauge set, what color is the low-side (compound) gauge and hose?

1. A Red
2. B Yellow
3. C Blue
4. D Green

67. Why is the low-side gauge called a compound gauge?

1. A It reads pressure and temperature of two refrigerants
2. B It reads both pressure and vacuum
3. C It combines a gauge with a sight glass
4. D It can be used on either side of the system

68. Which leak detection method finds where a leak is, rather than only showing that the system is losing refrigerant?

1. A Watching the receiver level over time
2. B A standing pressure decay test
3. C Comparing readings against a charging chart
4. D Bubble solution or an electronic detector

69. A technician adds fluorescent dye to a system and later scans the joints. What is used to find the leak?

1. A A black (ultraviolet) light
2. B A halide torch flame
3. C A micron gauge
4. D A sight glass

70. A cylinder holding both liquid and vapor R-134a sits in a 75 °F shop. What mainly determines the pressure inside it?

1. A How full the cylinder is
2. B The refrigerant's temperature
3. C The size of the cylinder
4. D How long ago it was last filled

71. Under 40 CFR 82.152, what does it mean to recover refrigerant?

1. A Clean it with filter-driers for reuse
2. B Return it to the manufacturer for credit
3. C Process it to AHRI 700-2016 and test each batch
4. D Remove it and store it in an outside container

72. Which describes recycling refrigerant under the Section 608 definitions?

1. A Storing it in a recovery cylinder without processing
2. B Reprocessing it to new-product specifications and testing every batch
3. C Cleaning it for reuse in the same owner's equipment
4. D Destroying it at an approved facility

73. Which of the three Rs requires laboratory analysis to show the refrigerant meets AHRI Standard 700-2016?

1. A Recover
2. B Reclaim
3. C Recycle
4. D Retrofit

74. A technician runs recovered R-22 through a recycling machine on site. Where may that recycled refrigerant be used?

1. A In equipment owned by the same owner it came from
2. B In any customer's equipment
3. C Only after it is sold to a wholesaler
4. D Nowhere until a reclaimer tests it

75. Under 40 CFR 82.164, which requirement applies to a certified refrigerant reclaimer?

1. A It must return reclaimed refrigerant only to the original owner
2. B It may release up to 5 percent of refrigerant during processing
3. C It must test each batch against Appendix A specifications
4. D It must hold Type III technician certification

76. Why must a technician avoid putting two different refrigerants into the same recovery cylinder?

1. A The recovery machine will be damaged and stop working for good
2. B The cylinder will weigh too much to ship
3. C Mixing always causes an explosion
4. D The mixture may not be reclaimable and may need destroying

77. A technician must recover R-22 from a rooftop unit on a cold winter morning. How will the low temperature affect the job?

1. A Faster, because the cold refrigerant is denser
2. B The recovery machine cannot run below 50 °F
3. C No change; temperature does not affect recovery
4. D Slower, because refrigerant pressure is lower

78. Which hose setup will usually give the fastest recovery?

1. A Short hoses with a large inside diameter
2. B Long hoses with a small inside diameter
3. C Long hoses with a large inside diameter
4. D Short hoses with valve-core depressors left in

79. A technician removes the Schrader valve cores from the service ports with a core removal tool before recovering. Why?

1. A To keep moisture out of the recovery unit
2. B To reduce restriction and speed recovery
3. C To prevent the refrigerant from fractionating
4. D To allow the system to be vented safely

80. Besides temperature and hoses, which factor has a large effect on how fast refrigerant can be recovered?

1. A The color of the recovery cylinder
2. B The brand of refrigerant in the system
3. C The size and capacity of the recovery equipment
4. D The time of day the job is done

81. The operating instructions for a certified recovery machine conflict with nothing in the Section 608 rules. How must the technician use the machine?

1. A However the technician prefers
2. B Only with the factory hoses removed
3. C According to the manufacturer's directions
4. D Only after it has been recertified that year

82. After a repair, why is a system evacuated with a vacuum pump before it is charged?

1. A To cool the compressor before startup
2. B To remove air and moisture from the system
3. C To measure how much refrigerant leaked out
4. D To mix the new oil with the refrigerant

83. Why does pulling a deep vacuum help remove water from a system?

1. A It turns water into a non-condensable gas
2. B It freezes the water so it can be drained out later
3. C It pushes water into the compressor oil
4. D It lowers water's boiling point so it boils off

84. What problem can moisture left in a system cause?

1. A Acids and sludge, and ice at the metering device
2. B Lower head pressure and better efficiency
3. C Faster oil return to the compressor
4. D Higher ozone depletion potential of the refrigerant

85. Air left in a system after service is a non-condensable. What is a likely result?

1. A Lower discharge temperature
2. B Higher than normal head pressure
3. C Better heat transfer in the condenser
4. D A rise in the refrigerant's boiling point in the evaporator only

86. Which instrument is used to confirm that a deep vacuum has been reached during dehydration?

1. A A sight glass
2. B A refrigerant scale
3. C A micron gauge
4. D An ammeter

87. A large R-22 leak occurs in a basement equipment room. What is the main breathing hazard?

1. A R-22 vapor has a strong odor that causes vomiting
2. B The vapor is lighter than air and rises to the ceiling
3. C R-22 vapor is highly flammable
4. D Vapor displaces oxygen and can cause suffocation

88. Besides oxygen deprivation, what health effect can result from breathing high concentrations of refrigerant vapor?

1. A Irregular heartbeat (cardiac effects)
2. B Permanent color blindness
3. C Improved alertness
4. D Hearing loss

89. Why should a technician wear gloves and goggles when connecting hoses to a system?

1. A Liquid refrigerant can freeze skin and eyes
2. B Refrigerant stains skin permanently
3. C Gloves keep refrigerant from becoming contaminated
4. D The rules require them only for flammable refrigerants

90. A large refrigerant leak has filled an enclosed machinery room. What protection is needed to enter it?

1. A A paper dust mask over the nose and mouth
2. B A self-contained breathing apparatus
3. C Safety glasses only
4. D Ear protection

91. How is a refillable refrigerant recovery cylinder usually identified by color?

1. A The color of the refrigerant it holds
2. B Solid green
3. C Red body with a white top
4. D Gray body with a yellow top

92. A disposable cylinder of R-410A is empty. What should the technician never do with it?

1. A Mark it as empty
2. B Recover the remaining vapor from it
3. C Refill it with recovered refrigerant
4. D Take it to a metal recycler once it is emptied

93. Why must a recovery cylinder never be filled to more than 80 percent of its capacity?

1. A The recovery machine cannot push refrigerant above 80 percent
2. B Warming liquid expands and could burst the cylinder
3. C Refrigerant above 80 percent turns to vapor and vents
4. D DOT allows only 80 percent so the cylinder weighs less

94. Which gas should be used to pressurize a system for leak testing?

1. A Oxygen
2. B Compressed shop air
3. C Acetylene
4. D Dry nitrogen

95. When pressurizing a system with nitrogen for a leak test, what equipment must be used with the nitrogen cylinder?

1. A A vacuum pump and a micron gauge
2. B A recovery machine and a scale
3. C A pressure regulator and a relief valve
4. D A sight glass and a filter-drier

96. Where should a technician look to learn the exposure hazards of a particular refrigerant?

1. A The refrigerant's safety data sheet (SDS)
2. B The appliance nameplate
3. C The recovery machine's certification label
4. D The pressure-temperature chart

97. A cylinder of recovered R-22 is being shipped to a reclaimer. What must its labels show?

1. A The name of the appliance owner
2. B Refrigerant name and DOT hazard class tag
3. C The date the system was installed
4. D The price paid for the refrigerant

98. Which DOT hazard classification applies to cylinders of common refrigerants such as R-22 or R-134a?

1. A Corrosive material
2. B Flammable liquid
3. C Nonflammable gas
4. D Poison gas

99. Which type of container may be used to ship recovered refrigerant to a reclaimer?

1. A A DOT-approved refillable recovery cylinder
2. B An empty disposable cylinder the refrigerant came in
3. C Any steel tank with a working valve
4. D A plastic jug with a sealed cap

100. A technician has a cylinder holding a mix of R-22 and R-404A. How should it be labeled before shipment to a reclaimer?

1. A With no refrigerant name, only the DOT tag
2. B As R-22, since R-22 was put in first
3. C As R-404A, since it is the larger amount
4. D As mixed refrigerant, naming what it contains